Answer:
Increase the cell width.
Explanation:
Which of the following statements best describes circuit training?
The correct option is B. The best statement that describes circuit training is a program that moves through a prescribed set of exercises.
Circuit training involves a series of exercises performed in succession, targeting various muscle groups and improving cardiovascular fitness.
Participants move quickly from one station or exercise to another, with minimal rest in between. This format allows for a comprehensive workout that enhances strength, endurance, and flexibility.
The other options are incorrect because:
A. Circuit training sessions can be consistent in length, depending on the program design.C. Circuit training primarily focuses on continuous movement rather than alternating between intense exercise and rest.D. Circuit training does not require different locations; it can be conducted in a single space.The correct question is:
Which of the following statements best describes circuit training?
A. Circuit training sessions vary in length.
B. Circuit training is a program that moves through a prescribed set of exercises.
C. Circuit training is a program that alternates between intense exercise and rest periods.
D. Circuit training sessions take place in different locations.
drugs can enter the body by being absorbed through the skin. this can be accomplished by using
A) injection
B) implanted pump
C) inhalation device
D) topical application
Which STD/STI can cause painful sores and blisters on the genitals
Answer:
Herpes
Explanation:
what sentence correctly describes what affirmative consent means for partners in a relationship ?
A - Only one partner must say yes to consent to sexual activity
B - Both partners must say yes to consent to sexual activity
C - Each partner can assume that the other consents to sexual activity if nothing is said
D - One partner is saying yes and the other partner saying nothing means that both partners consent
Answer: B - Both partners must say yes to consent to sexual activity.
Explanation:
Affirmative consent is a consent in which both the parties involved agree for the sexual conduct, either by clean and verbal communication or through nonverbal cues or gestures. The affirmative consent cannot be given and taken if a person is unconscious in sleep or is intoxicated with drugs or alcohol.
Thus based on the above explanation, both partners must say yes to sexual activity is affirmative consent.
which of these is found only in females ?
A. An ovary
B . The pituitary
C. Hormones
D. FSH
Ovary is found only in females.
Pituitary gland is the master gland that is present in all humans.Hormones are the proteins that are secreted from the various glands for various body functioning.FSH in males help control sperm production and egg release in female.What are the function of ovary?The ovaries are small, oval-shaped glands located on either side of uterus.They produce and store eggs.It make hormones that control menstrual cycle and pregnancy. During ovulation, one of ovaries releases an egg.What are different female organs?
The female reproductive system includes:-
The ovaries, Fallopian tubes,Uterus, Vagina, Accessory glands,External genital organs.To know more about reproductive system here
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Marissa is Target heart rate zone is 140 to 178. During a tennis match she checks her wrist monitor which indicates that her heart rate is currently at 130. Which of the following will help her get the most productive work out based on the information she has gathered
Which feature of Excel changes obvious misspellings automatically?
This would be the autocorrect function. The autocorrect feature allows for the program to automatically correct any spelling mistakes without you having to worry about doing it yourself or making undetected mistakes while you type. It is a very handy feature similar to predictive text while using your phone but in this case it fixes your mistakes instead of guessing what you it is you want to write.
Which of these probably could not be used to identify you without additional information.
A. A vacation photo
B. Your Social Security number
C. Your driver's license number
D. Your passport
__________ treats cancer by removing it. A. Chemotherapy B. Immunotherapy C. Surgery D. Hormones
Answer: C. Surgery
Surgery treats cancer by removing it.
Explanation:
Surgery refers to a medical procedure which employs operation in the treatment of diseases. Cancer surgery take away the tumor and nearby tissue during an operation. Surgery can be used to examine, remove or repair tissue. Surgery is an effective treatment of cancer and the oldest type of cancer treatment.
The treatment that specifically involves physically removing cancer is surgery. Other treatments like chemotherapy and immunotherapy work differently, using drugs to kill cancer cells or boosting the immune system to fight the disease, respectively.
Explanation:The treatment that specifically involves removing cancer by surgery is C. Surgery. Surgery is one of the primary methods used to treat cancer and can physically remove the tumor from the patient's body. Unlike other treatment options such as chemotherapy, which uses drugs to kill cancer cells, or immunotherapy, which aims to stimulate the immune system to fight cancer, surgery targets the removal of the cancerous cells through a physical operation. Hormones are another form of treatment that can be used in cancer care, but they don't remove the cancer from the body; instead, they may help control the growth of cancer cells.
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Which statement best defines childbirth
A.) The joining of an egg and a sperm
B.) The period of about 40 weeks when developing embryo or fetus is in the uterus
C.) The process and see year's contract to push the fetus out of the woman's body through the vagina
D.) A fertilized egg that has begun cell division
Answer:
C.) The process and see year's contract to push the fetus out of the woman's body through the vagina
Explanation:
Childbirth involves three essential stages in which all the characteristics of a normal birth are manifested: The first stage includes everything related to contractions and pain until the cervix dilates. The second and most important part of course is the descent of the baby, this can be in two ways, in case the standard conditions of a natural birth do not occur, a caesarean section is prepared, which is to remove the child through of an incision in the belly. A surgery that does not produce more pain than maternal delivery. The third and last one refers to the extraction of the placenta and all the residues that remain in the uterus, this cleaning must be done carefully but completely in order to avoid external damages due to an infection.
How long must a child be without symptoms before returning to care
How could a teenager obtain a day's worth of vitamin A?
A.By consuming a wide variety of fats and oils
B.By consuming a wide variety of meats, poultry, and fish
C.By consuming three servings of dairy
D.By consuming a variety of orange-colored fruits and vegetables
The right answer is D.
Vitamin A promotes growth, improves vision (anti-xerophthalmic).
Vitamin A helps maintain normal vision and contributes to healthy skin, eyes and the immune system. It also promotes growth and development.
* Vitamin A which is fat soluble is stored in the body.
* Vitamin A is found in foods of animal and vegetable origin. Vegetable foods contain carotenoids (an orange-colored pigment), a form of vitamin A. Carotenoids, such as beta-carotene, are converted to vitamin A by the body.
Answer:
D.By consuming a variety of orange-colored fruits and vegetables
Explanation:
test approved
Which word best completes this sentence? People who do not have enough of the vitamin B-1 suffer from impaired memory, confusion, and lack of coordination which are indications of B-1 vitamin______________ caused by chronic alcohol use. sufficiency absorption coordination deficiency
Which of the following risks is the least likely to affect an individual who has been smoking for only a few months?
A.
lung cancer
B.
shortness of breath
C.
yellowing teeth
D.
reduced sense of smell
Answer:
A. Lung Cancer
Explanation:
Describe two distinct ways in which the skin could help cool the body on a hot day
Answer:
The skin helps cool the body on hot days through sweating and dilating blood vessels.
Explanation:
The skin, despite its appearance, is an organ, not a tissue as many people think. It is formed by two main layers, the epidermis and the dermis, which in turn are formed by different tissues. The skin has several functions in the body, one of the most important being maintaining temperature.
When it is very hot, the skin cools the body through sweat or vasodilation.
Vasodilation is the process of dilating blood vessels through the relaxation of the smooth muscles of the vessels and is related to the maintenance and regulation of body temperature, when it happens occurs the decrease in blood pressure and heat loss to the outside, cooling the body.
Sweat is a fluid produced by the sweat glands that are located in the dermis. Sweat has the function of cooling the body so that it does not get too hot. Sweating our body gets rid of the excess heat produced by metabolism or muscle strain.
which of these statements is a fact
a) a female cannot get pregnant the first time she has intercourse
b) every female has a predictable ovulation cycle
c) all contraceptives prevent stds and pregnancy
d) most contraceptives are effective when used properly
Answer:
The answer would be D. Most contraceptives are effective when used properly.
Explanation: This is the only statement that is true out of these choices. Also, A-P-E-X approved.
A burn victim has waxy white areas interspersed with pink and red areas on the anterior trunk and all of both arms. The nurse calculates the percentage of total body surface area (TBSA). Which percentage will the nurse report?
The nurse calculates the percentage of total body surface area (TBSA) in the burn victim. The percentage which the nurse will report is 36%.
What is Burn therapy?Serious burns after appropriate first aid and wound assessment, require treatment which may involve medications, wound dressings, therapy and surgery of the wounds. The goals of treatment are to control the pain, remove dead tissues from the body, prevent infection, reduce the scarring risk and regain the function.
Nurse could use the rule of nines to calculate the total percentage of the body areas which have the waxy white patches mixed with the pink and red areas on the front of the torso and both the arms.
When a nurse examines a patient with burns, the nurse can use rule of nine to determine the percentage of patient body with white wax areas, pink and red front torso, and arms. Using the rule of nines, total body surface area burning percentage will be 9% for each arm, 18% total for both the arms and 18% for the front of the trunk for a total of 36% of the body.
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Sandra's target heart rate zone is 135bpm—172bpm. Marissa's target heart rate zone is 143bpm—176bpm. They stop playing basketball and take their pulse, and both count the heart rate at 144bpm. If they decrease their heart rates by 20bpm, who will be in her THR zone?
After decreasing their heart rates by 20 bpm from 144 bpm, only Sandra would be within her target heart rate zone at 124 bpm, while Marissa would be below her zone. Target Heart Rate zones guide exercise intensity to ensure safe and effective workouts, typically calculated based on estimated maximum heart rate.
Sandra's target heart rate (THR) zone is between 135 and 172 beats per minute (bpm), while Marissa's is slightly higher, ranging from 143 to 176 bpm. After playing basketball, they both have a heart rate of 144 bpm. If both decrease their heart rates by 20 bpm, Sandra's heart rate would be 124 bpm and Marissa's would be 124 bpm as well. Sandra's new heart rate falls within her THR zone since it is between 135 and 172 bpm, whereas Marissa's new heart rate would be below her THR zone.
Target Heart Rate and Estimated Maximum Heart Rate are important concepts when determining exercise intensity. The THR zone is used to guide exercise intensity by providing a low and high end rate. For example, moderate-intensity physical activity for a 25-year-old person will require a heart rate between 127 and 148 bpm.
It's essential to note that the first step in determining your THR is to find your maximum heart rate (MHR), which is usually estimated by subtracting your age from 220 bpm. This step helps ensure that individuals are exercising within a safe and effective range.
Which of the following is most important when setting goals? A. Working late into the night is often necessary to reach goals. B. Standards should be as high as possible. C. Tasks should be included but are unimportant. D. Goals should be difficult but realistic.
How can a person guard against osteoporosis
Which career may be a good fit for you if you enjoy planning meals and learning about proper nutrition
Registered dietitians help plan nutrition programs for individuals in various settings. They often work with patients in health care facilities, designing nutrition plans to treat and prevent diseases.
Explanation:Registered Dietitian
Registered dietitians help plan nutrition programs for individuals in various settings. They often work with patients in health care facilities, designing nutrition plans to treat and prevent diseases. For example, dietitians may teach a patient with diabetes how to manage blood sugar levels by eating the correct types and amounts of carbohydrates. Dietitians may also work in nursing homes, schools, and private practices.
To become a registered dietitian, one needs to earn at least a bachelor's degree in dietetics, nutrition, food technology, or a related field. In addition, registered dietitians must complete a supervised internship program and pass a national exam. Those who pursue careers in dietetics take courses in nutrition, chemistry, biochemistry, biology, microbiology, and human physiology. Dietitians must become experts in the chemistry and physiology (biological functions) of food (proteins, carbohydrates, and fats).
Final answer:
If you enjoy planning meals and learning about proper nutrition, becoming a registered dietitian could be an excellent career choice. This role involves creating nutrition programs to treat and prevent health issues, and requires a bachelor's degree and certification. Dietitians work in health care facilities, schools, and private practices, among others.
Explanation:
If you find joy in planning meals and have a keen interest in proper nutrition, a career as a registered dietitian may be a good fit for you. Registered dietitians play a crucial role in health care by developing nutrition programs tailored to individual needs. They often work with patients in medical settings, creating dietary plans to help treat and prevent a variety of health issues, such as managing blood sugar levels in diabetes patients.
To embark on this career, you will need a bachelor's degree in dietetics, nutrition, food technology, or a related field. Coursework for this degree typically includes subjects like nutrition, chemistry, biochemistry, biology, microbiology, and human physiology. You will also need to complete a hands-on supervised internship program and pass a national examination to become certified in the field.
Dietetics professionals must have an in-depth understanding of the chemistry and physiological functions of food components like proteins, carbohydrates, and fats. They are increasingly in demand due to rising health concerns such as obesity, diabetes, and heart disease. As a registered dietitian, you can find career opportunities in various settings like hospitals, nursing homes, schools, or private practices, where your expertise in food science and nutrition will support and enhance the health and well-being of others.
explain which components of health coping is useful for
Estimated how many people get lung cancer from smoking each year?
which of these describes a common impact of adolescent pregnancy ?
A . Optimal health for the baby
B . Increased job opportunities for the father
C. Financial gain for the family
D . Disruption of education for the mother
Immediately after delivering a shock with the AED... A) place the victim in the recovery position B) deliver a second shock C) immediately begin 5 cycles of CPR (approx.. 2 minutes) D) wait several minutes to see if the victim starts breathing
Answer:
C) immediately begin 5 cycles of CPR.
Explanation:
if you wait to begin CPR again or move the victim, you are losing time and are less likely to revive them. you must continue to pump the heart and give oxygen to help prevent brain damage.
After delivering a shock with an AED, one should immediately start 5 cycles of CPR, approximately lasting 2 minutes. CPR helps sustain circulation and oxygenation post-shock. Additional shocks should only be given if indicated by the AED, and the recovery position should only be used if the victim regains consciousness.
Immediately after delivering a shock with the Automated External Defibrillator (AED), the correct action is to immediately begin 5 cycles of CPR, which is approximately 2 minutes. CPR (cardiopulmonary resuscitation) should be administered after an AED is used to deliver a shock because it can help circulate blood and deliver oxygen to the body's organs while the heart is recovering. The shock delivered by the AED is intended to stop the irregular heart rhythm, allowing the heart to potentially restart with a normal rhythm. CPR continues to support the circulatory system until the heart successfully resumes normal function or further medical assistance arrives.
This approach to emergency care is a widely accepted protocol and is vital in increasing the chances of survival and recovery for a person experiencing a cardiac arrest. It is crucial not to wait to see if the victim starts breathing or to administer additional shocks without the AED indicating the necessity. Consistent with guidelines, the recovery position is not immediately recommended post-shock unless the person regains consciousness and normal breathing, and there is no need to provide another shock unless the AED prompts you to do so.
A bal of .12 reduces the distance a pedestrian can be seen by a driver about
According to statistics from the CDC, people between the ages of 15 and 24 are at the highest risk of getting an STD. True or false.
It is a true statement that people between the ages of 15 and 24 are at the highest risk of getting an STD.
Why does age 15 and 24 contract STDs?We know that the youthful population in a country are the most likely population that are se-xually active. As such, we expect that they are the one that are more likely to contract STDs because of poor information and vulnerability.
Thus, it is a true statement that people between the ages of 15 and 24 are at the highest risk of getting an STD.
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Which would be the best strategy for overcoming tobacco addiction?
a woman can get pregnant in the first time she engages in sexual activity true or false
Final answer:
It is false that a woman cannot become pregnant on her first sexual encounter; pregnancy can occur at any time there is unprotected intercourse during the fertile period. Monitoring basal body temperature as contraception is unreliable, and infertility is typically diagnosed after a year of unsuccessful conception attempts. Male fetal gonads differentiate into testes due to the Y chromosome.
Explanation:
The claim that a woman cannot get pregnant the first time she has sexual intercourse is false. Pregnancy can occur any time a woman has unprotected intercourse, including the first time, if it coincides with her fertile period, which usually occurs mid-cycle around ovulation. Conception happens when a sperm cell fertilizes an egg, and this can happen regardless of whether it's the woman's first sexual experience.
Regarding the use of basal body temperature (BBT) as a method of contraception, it's important to understand that a low BBT on day 12 of the menstrual cycle does not guarantee safety from pregnancy. Since the BBT typically rises after ovulation, unprotected intercourse on a day when the temperature is still low could result in pregnancy if ovulation occurs shortly after. This method has a notable failure rate because it can be challenging to predict the exact time of ovulation.
For a couple attempting to conceive, infertility is generally diagnosed after a year of regular, unprotected intercourse without pregnancy. Therefore, not conceiving after nine months does not automatically indicate infertility. Lastly, in the developing male fetus, it's true that the gonads initially develop in a similar way to ovaries but differentiate into testes due to the presence of the Y chromosome, which triggers the development of male reproductive organs.
which of these can develop in the uterus
A) the prostate gland
B) Sperm
C) The endometrium
D) An unfertilized egg
It’s the endometrium, which is the lining of the uterus. Eggs develop in the ovaries.
The endometrium can develop in the uterus. The correct option is C.
What is endometrium?
The lining of the uterine is called endometrium. This organ shrinks or grow every month during the years of fertility of woman.
The body prepares the endometrium to host an embryo every month as part of the menstrual cycle.
Thus, the correct option is C) The endometrium.
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