Which of the following is not a reason that introduced species are a threat to biodiversity? (1 point)

A. Introduced species can cause exponential biological magnification
B. Introduced species can become invasive species that displace native species.
C. Introduced species can cause increased competition of limited resources in an ecosystem
D. Introduced species can prey on native species, causing an unnatural decline of the native species' population

Answers

Answer 1

A. Introduced species can cause exponential biological magnification

Answer 2

Introduced species can cause exponential biological magnification is not a reason that introduced species are a threat to biodiversity. So, the correct option is A.

What is Biodiversity?

Biodiversity is described as the variety of all living things, different plants, animals and microorganisms, the genetic information they possess and the ecosystems they form are generally explored at three levels Genetic diversity, Species diversity, Ecosystem diversity.

Without a wide range of animals, plants and microorganisms, we cannot have healthy ecosystems, which we rely on to provide the air we breathe and the food we eat.

Introduced species can become invasive species that displace native species and prey on native species, leading to unnatural declines in populations of native species, one reason why introduced species are a threat to biodiversity .

Therefore, the correct option is A.

Learn more about Biodiversity, here:

https://brainly.com/question/13073382

#SPJ6


Related Questions

1. Forensic scientists use DNA fingerprinting for

Answers

Answer:

When used for forensic science, DNA fingerprinting makes use of probes that target regions of DNA specific to humans, thus eliminating any possibility of contamination by extraneous DNA from bacteria, plants, insects, or other sources.

Explanation:

Answered that question before. hope this helps :)

Answer: B. Identifying a person based on his or her unique genetic code.

Explanation: Here are the answer choices:


A. Finding similarities between individuals

B. Identifying a person based on his or her unique genetic code.
C. Tracing patterns of genetic defects present in criminals.

D. Determining if genetic engineering has occurred on a product.


B sounds the most reasonable to me.

Caspar plants four bean seeds. He waters the first seed twice a day, the second seed once a day, the third seed every other day and the fourth seed not at all. Which seed can he expect to germinate first?

Answers

The seed he waters twice a day

WILL GIVE BRAINLIEST IF CORRECT!!!!! NEEEEEED HELP!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!

Using the chart, which of the following point mutations will cause the most harmful effect on an individual?




U



C



A



G







UUU

Phenylalanine

UCU

Serine

UAU

Tyrosine

UGU

Cysteine

U

U

UUC

Phenylalanine

UCC

Serine

UAC

Tyrosine

UGC

Cysteine

C



UUA

Leucine

UCA

Serine

UAA

Stop

UGA

Stop

A



UUG

Leucine

UCG

Serine

UAG

Stop

UGG

Tryptophan

G



CUU

Leucine

CCU

Proline

CAU

Hisitidine

CGU

Arginine

U

C

CUC

Leucine

CCC

Proline

CAC

Hisitidine

CGC

Arginine

C



CUA

Leucine

CCA

Proline

CAA

Glutamine

CGA

Arginine

A



CUG

Leucine

CCG

Proline

CAG

Glutamine

CGG

Arginine

G



AUU

Isoleucine

ACU

Threonine

AAU

Asparagine

AGU

Serine

U

A

AUC

Isoleucine

ACC

Threonine

AAC

Asparagine

AGC

Serine

C



AUA

Isoleucine

ACA

Threonine

AAA

Lysine

AGA

Arginine

A



AUG

Methionine/Start

ACG

Threonine

AAG

Lysine

AGG

Arginine

G



GUU

Valine

GCU

Alanine

GAU

Aspartate

GGU

Glycine

U

G

GUC

Valine

GCC

Alanine

GAC

Aspartate

GGC

Glycine

C



GUA

Valine

GCA

Alanine

GAA

Glutamate

GGA

Glycine

A



GUG

Valine

GCG

Alanine

GAG

Glutamate

GGG

Glycine

G

The sequence reads AUU; a change in the second base from U to C
The sequence reads CGA; a change in the first base from C to A
The sequence reads UGU; a change in the third base from U to A
The sequence reads UUA; a change in the first base from U to C and a change in the third base from A to G

Answers

Answer:

The answer is C.(The sequence reads UGU) (non sens mutation are the most harmful)

Answer:

The sequence reads UGU; a change in the third base from U to A

Explanation:

I just took this test and got it right, good luck with all your stuff!!

Why is earth considered an open system and a closed system?

Answers

Answer:

The earth is a closed system because only energy is naturally transferred outside the atmosphere.

Explanation:

All systems inside the Earth, on the other hand, are open systems as both energy and matter can be transferred between the systems and their surroundings.

Which of the following is the best demonstration of the fundamental attribution error?
A.
“Chris earned a good grade on the test because he studied hard for this exam.”
B.
“Chris earned a good grade on the test because he asked the teacher for help.”
C.
“Chris earned a good grade on the test because he is really smart.”
D.
“Chris earned a good grade on the test because he ate a good breakfast on test day.”

Answers

Answer:

The answer is C.

Explanation:

Fundamental attribution error is drawing conclusions on the people based only on internal factors ( personality) of one person. These personal characteristics are overemphasized that external (situational) factors aren't even thought about. In this particular case, fundamental attribution error would be claiming that Chris earned good grades only because of his internal characteristics (his intelligence).

Answer:

C. is the correct answer

Explanation:

Hope that this helps. Peace and Love

the diagram shows warm air blowing toward the equator

Answers

Answer:

warm air blows toward the equator , and cold air displaces this warm air near the polar regions.

Explanation:

Answer: The Coriolis force bends the air current

Explanation: The full question is The diagram shows warm air blowing toward the equator. Which causes the air current to curve

Gene regulations in eukaryotes

Answers

Answer:

Gene regulation in eucaryotic cells represents mechanisms that influence gene expression.

Explanation:

This gene expression is regulated via repressors or activators of transcription.

Gene expression is a process that contains information from a transcript gene and translates it into a functional gene product. End products of gene expression are proteins.

Gene regulation is a process that cells and viruses are using to regulate the transformation of gene information into gene products.

Transcription factors are those proteins that regulate gene transcription. Those factors help the real genes to enter the right cells in the body.

The expression of eukaryotic genes is controlled by transcription. This transcription is controlled by proteins that are connecting to regulatory sequences and change the RNA activity. Gene regulation process is developed by combining different proteins of regulation.

A student notices that when bananas are kept near other fruits, the other fruits ripen faster. She wonders what causes the other fruits to ripen more quickly and thinks that bananas must have an influence on the ripening process. She decides to perform an experiment. She gathers bananas and apples and places an apple by itself at location A and an apple next to a banana at location B. She then waits for five days and records the how ripe each apple is.

What would be the next step in this experiment?

A.
ask questions and construct a hypothesis
B.
analyze the results and make a conclusion
C.
make observations and draw a conclusion
D.
construct a hypothesis and record data

Answers

Answer:

The correct option is B) analyze the results and make a conclusion

Explanation:

The scientific method of research is based on the following steps:

Observations are made: In the following scenario, a student observed that t when bananas are kept near other fruits, the other fruits ripen faster.

Question: Based on the observation, a question is generated. In this scenario, the student had a question that will keeping bananas near any fruit increase the ripening process of the fruit.

Hypothesis: A hypothesis is the formation of a tentative statement.

Experiments: Based on the hypothesis, experiments are done to check for the results.

Analyzing the results and drawing conclusions: Results from the experiments are analyzed and conclusions are drawn which might prove the hypothesis to be correct or wrong.

The expansion of grasses during the Oligocene and Miocene Epochs led to

A. the extinction of mammals.
B. the expansion of tree-dwelling primates.
C. an increase in dinosaur and reptile species on land.
D. the radiation of herbivores such as grazing mammals.

Answers

Answer:

The answer is:

D. the radiation of herbivores such as grazing animals

Explanation:

Oligocene and Miocene Epochs:

The Oligocene epoch is characterized by temperate and subtropical climatic conditions which favored the expansion of grasses and reduced forest cover. The Miocene epoch, which succeeded the Oligocene era, is attributed to changes in global circulation due to global warming of the climate followed by global cooling towards the end.

The Oligocence and Miocene epoch are both attributed to the expansion of grasslands and savannah. Both eras marked rapid and drastic evolutionary changes in grazing mammals and herbivores. Diverse groups of grazing mammals lived throughout these eras. For example, the largest herbivore and land mammal of all time, Indricotherium (a sort of giant hornless rhinoceros), was present in the Oligocene era.

Similarly, the Oligocene era in North America favored the rapid radiation of primitive horses.

5. Which of the following statements best explains the role of meiosis in reproduction?
Meiosis allows chromosomes to exchange genetic material through crossing over.
Meiosis makes it possible for a zygote to have the correct number of chromosomes.
Meiosis increases the chances of fertilization because it produces four daughter cells.
Meiosis results in offspring with genotypes that are not exact copies of the parents.

Answers

Answer:

The correct answer is: Meiosis makes it possible for a zygote to have the correct number of chromosomes.

Explanation:

Meiosis is a type of cell division used by reproducing organisms to produce the gametes (as sperm or egg cells). It has two rounds of division that results in four cells with one copy of each chromosome.

Before the division, genetic material from each chromosome is crossed over and creates new combinations of code on each chromosome. During fertilization, the cells produced by meiosis will conjoin to create a cell with copies of each chromosome again, the zygote.

Answer:

Hello!

The answer is Meiosis allows chromosomes to exchange genetic material through crossing over.

Explanation:

Meiosis:

Meiosis, also known as reduction division, is the type of cell division that produces four gametes by reducing the number of chromosomes in each daughter cell.  

Meiosis occurs in the germ cells and is required for reproduction. Unlike Mitosis, which produces copies of the parent genetic material, meiosis is responsible for producing variations in the offspring DNA. Meiosis allows the crossing over which is the exchange of genetic material between chromosomes that will ultimately end up in separate daughter cells. This process will produce four gametes with a varied set of genes.

How many atoms of aluminum are in the reactant side?

Answers

Answer:

there are 4 aluminium atoms on the reactants side that combines with 4 other oxygen atoms.

Explanation:

Which of the following does not occur during Mitosis?

Answers

Answer:

The correct option is 'replication of chromosomes.'

Explanation:

Mitosis can be described as a type of cell division in which two daughter cells are produced which are identical to the parent cell. crossing over or independent assortment does not occur during this process. The cells produced by this method do not have to replicate their chromosomes. Hence, this option is not true.

Other options are true like the alignment of chromosomes along the cell's equator happens during the metaphase of mitosis.

Bacteria are important because of their extreme flexibility and capacity for rapid growth and reproduction. TRUE FALSE

Answers

hello the answer is true

Answer:

Bacteria are important because of their extreme flexibility and capacity for rapid growth and reproduction. This statement is- TRUE

Explanation:

Bacteria can grow best in their optimum environment. But they can survive in extreme conditions also.

Temperature- Optimum temperature for bacterial growth is 20- 45 degree Celsius. But Psychrophiles can survive on the lower temperature also . They can survive on refrigerator temperature lower than 4 degree Celsius.

Thermophiles even can grow on higher temperature up to 80 degree Celsius. Some hyperthermophiles has been discovered which can survive temperature ranging from 80-121 degree Celsius. Bacteria are discovered from hydrothermal vents where temperature is measured 340 degree Celsius. For bacteria obtained from hydrothermal vents optimal growth temperature is 100 degrees Celsius.

Like extreme temperature , bacteria can grow in extreme salt concentration are known as HALOPHILES.

Aerobic bacteria require oxygen to survive. But without oxygen also they can survive i,e. ANAEROBIC bacteria.

They can grow in highly acidic medium as well as highly alkaline medium.

They can survive in these extreme conditions , this flexibility and tolerance comes from their genes. Because of their very short duplication time /multiplication time they can achieve this tolerance. E. coli bacteria found in human intestine has very short doubling time of 20 minutes. They have ability to change /mutate their genes according to the survival condition. In genetic engineering also the advantage of using  microbe with shorter duplication time is useful. Within few minutes one can get the result whether the desire gene is expressed or not.

Which procedure could a student use to examine an intensive property of a rectangular block of wood?
G
EEN
e F
DEFENS
CHE
30
.
Find the mass.
Record the length.
Measure the volume.
Determine the density.

Answers

Answer:

the answer is correct

Explanation:

i did the quiz

Which statement best describes a spring?

Answers

Answer & Explanation:

A natural spring can be described as groundwater flowing naturally to the surface where it is lower than the water table. Water is present in the ground, which is under our feet in soil spaces and in the fractures of rock formations. There comes a point where the ground water is recharged and flows to the surface naturally. The water that naturally flows to the surface is called springs.

Groundwater flowing naturally to the surface where it is lower than the water table statement best describes a spring.

What is the groundwater?

An underground layer of rock or silt that contains groundwater, the top of the saturated zone, naturally occurring groundwater that rises to the surface below the water table.

When groundwater is present below the water table and flows naturally to the surface, it is referred to as a natural spring.

Water can be found in the soil gaps beneath our feet and in the cracks in rock formations. At some point, the groundwater is naturally recharged and flows to the surface. Springs are places where water rises to the surface naturally.

Therefore, groundwater flowing naturally to the surface, where it is lower than the water table.

Learn more about groundwater, here:

https://brainly.com/question/19620652

#SPJ6

The given question is incomplete, so most probable complete question is,

Which statement best describes a spring?

the top of the saturated zone

an underground layer of rock or sediment that holds groundwater

groundwater flowing naturally to the surface where it is lower than the water table

a vent in Earth’s surface that periodically ejects a column of hot water and steam

1. The plant life that is characteristic of a biome depends upon:
A. the type of soil
B. the range of temperatures
C. the amount and pattern of precipitation
D. all of the above​

Answers

Answer:

D. all of the above​

Explanation:

Biome refers to a large and relatively distinct terrestrial region having similar climatic conditions regardless of where it occurs on Earth. The characteristic climatic conditions (temperature and precipitation being the most important ones) and soil type of each biome type determine the type of plant species found there. Therefore, each biome is characterized by specific flora.  

For example, a desert biome is a temperate or tropical biome characterized by a lack of precipitation, seasonal variations in temperature and poor soil type with low organic matter that limits plant growth. Desert biomes have only the plant species that can survive these harsh conditions.  

how does distance from the ocean, ocean current, latitude, elevation, and relative location of mountain ranges affect the climate in new york?

Answers

Answer:

So many factors influence the climate. Some of them are ocean currents, latitude, distance from the ocean, elevation, etc.

Explanation:

The distance from the ocean influences the climate of the place. If the place is located on the coast, the climate will be colder and humidity will be higher.

Thanks to ocean currents the temperature can be changed. Ocean currents can low the temperature but also make it very high.

Latitude has an influence also regarding the temperature. Elevation, as it gets higher, the air above is falling, so the pressure decreases.

Regarding all the factors above, we can say that New York has hot summers, with high humidity and very cold winters, full of snow. Close to the river, the ground is muddy and going to the mountains, the ground is getting rocky

What is the Pacific Rim of Fire? Explain how this geographic area is related to what we have studied

make sure you include information related to sea-floor spreading, plate tectonics earthquakes, and volcanoes.

And can you put it a little short thanks!

Answers

Explanation:

it's a set of volcanoes along a plate tectonic. they are created by a divergent boundary which creates seafloor spreading

PLEASE ANSWER ASAP!!
The diagram shows the embryological development of a species.
Which is best supported by the diagram?

1. The species must be human because it has gill slits, limb buds, and a tail.
2. The species could be human because it has gill slits, limb buds, and a tail.
3. The species is not related to a human because it has gill slits.
4. The species is not related to a human because it has a tail.

Answers

Answer:

The answer is b or  The species could be human because it has gill slits, limb buds, and a tail.

Explanation:

When Humans are in the embryology stage we have tails, gill slits, and also buds of that are the beginings for limbs

They offer solid proof of natural selection. The tail and gill slits found in all early vertebrate embryos are just two examples of embryological evidence that suggests similar ancestry. Thus, option B is correct.

What are the phenotypic feature of human embryo?

In fact, young human embryos do have slits in their necks that resemble gills. Instead of because we go through a “fish stage” while growing into physiologically perfect beings within our mothers' wombs.

Due to a shared ancestor and some DNA between humans and fish, this is almost certainly true. Given that it has limb buds, gill slits, and a tail, the species might be human.

In chordates, the anterior part of the digestive tract (pharynx) has pouches or slits. These are present during development in all vertebrate species and play a role in gas exchange and feeding in fish and some amphibians.

Therefore, When Humans are in the embryology stage we have tails, gill slits, and also buds of that are the beginnings for limbs.

Learn more about human embryo here:

https://brainly.com/question/14256309

#SPJ6

Name the features marking the
main branching points on the evolutionary tree of animals.​

Answers

Tissue systems, types of symmetry, presence and types of body cavities, types of development and segmentation Illustrate how body cavities distinguish branches of development of animals with bilateral symmetry.
Final answer:

The branching points on the evolutionary tree of animals are marked by significant changes, including the evolution or loss of traits. These include the appearance of legs or the amniotic egg, the number of heart chambers, body symmetry, and other developmental characteristics. The branches' length doesn't signify the amount of evolutionary change.

Explanation:

The main features marking the branching points on the evolutionary tree of animals, also known as the phylogenetic tree, are significant character changes, including the evolution of new traits and the loss of old ones. For instance, the branch point that diverges mammals and reptiles from the frog lineage is marked by the evolution of the amniotic egg. Similarly, the branch point that gave rise to organisms with legs is found at the common ancestor of mammals, reptiles, amphibians, and jawed fishes.

The branch points and branches in a phylogenetic tree represent evolutionary change. For example, the number of heart chambers in animals can change due to evolution and this is reflected on the evolutionary tree. Additionally, other key features such as body plan symmetry, number of germ tissue layers, and developmental characteristics like the presence or absence of an internal body cavity are used to determine branching points on the evolutionary tree.

Phylogenetic trees and cladograms can illustrate such changes derived due to evolution. However, the length of the branches on the evolutionary tree should not be mistaken as an indicator of the amount of evolutionary change between organisms.

Learn more about Evolutionary Tree Features here:

https://brainly.com/question/34687093

#SPJ12

Nearly all populations will tend to grow exponentially as long as there are resources available. After an initial period of exponential
growth, a population will encounter one or more limiting factors that will cause the exponential growth to stop. The population enters a
slower growth phase and may stabilize at a fairly constant population size or in some cases, may decline. Limiting factors can be classified
as either density-dependent or density independent
7:12
Cools
Drag each phrase/term to the correct column.
LON
Available space
Number of predators
Volcano
Wild fires
Density Dependent
Density Independent
Climatic change
o answer here
drag and drop
er here

Answers

Density dependent: available space number of predators

density independent: climatic change wild fires volcano

According to the question, each phrase/term with respect to the correct column is as follows:

Density-dependent factors: Available space, Number of predators.Density-independent factors: Volcano, Wildfires, climatic change.

What is Population?

A Population may be defined as a group of individuals belonging to the same species living in the same area at a given time.

Density-dependent factors may be characterized as those factors that significantly vary with the density of the population. These factors affect a higher proportion of individuals. It typically includes food and space available, competition between the species, predation, parasitism, accumulation of toxic wastes, etc.

While density-independent factors are those factors that do not vary with the density of the population. It majorly includes abiotic parameters like Temperature, flooding, pH, wildfires, etc.

Therefore, according to the question, each phrase/term with respect to the correct column is well mentioned.

To learn more about Density-dependent factors, refer to the link:

https://brainly.com/question/1381680

#SPJ2

imagine a genetic cross between two people,blood type AB. what is the probability that these people will have offspring with type b blood
A)0%
B)10%
C)25%
D)50%​

Answers

Answer:

the right answer is c) 25%

Explanation:

Because its on usatestprep and 25% is the probability of having offspring with type B blood. If you do a Punnett square you see:

1/4 offspring could have blood type B: a 25% chance. 2/4 could be AB and 1/4 could be A.

This is the process of matter changing from the liquid to the solid state?

Answers

Answer:

The process is called freezing.

Explanation:

The process in which matter changing from the liquid to the solid state is called Freezing. Generally the freezing point of liquid like  water is 32°F or 0°C. Freezing is just the opposite of melting in which a solid melted to liquid. different liquid has different freezing point. the freezing point of liquid nitrogen at a pressure of one atmosphere is -345.8°F.

Final answer:

The process where matter changes from a liquid to a solid state is called freezing, occurring when heat is removed from a liquid, causing its particles to slow down and solidify.

Explanation:

The process of matter changing from the liquid to the solid state is known as freezing. This occurs when heat is removed from a substance, causing its particles to slow down and come closer together until the liquid becomes a solid. This transition is an example of a phase change, more specifically, it is one of the six common phase changes between the three states of matter: solid, liquid, and gas.

During freezing, the heat energy is subtracted from the liquid which decreases the motion of the particles. When the temperature reaches the substance's freezing point, the molecules have slowed sufficiently to arrange into a fixed, orderly structure, resulting in a solid. The freezing point is an important physical property and is specific to the substance being frozen. Examples include water freezing at 0 degrees Celsius or 32 degrees Fahrenheit to become ice.

How do ETS reactions produce ATP?
A. NADH and FADH2 donate electrons which move through the cristae; H+ ions are pumped out of the matrix; as H+ ions are pumped back into the matrix, ATP is produced.
B. H+ ions donate electrons which move through the cristae; NADH and FADH2 are pumped out of the matrix; as NAD+ and FAD are pumped back into the cristae, ATP is produced.
C. NAD+ and FADH donate electrons which move through the cristae; H+ ions are pumped out of the matrix; ATP and water are produced, and oxygen is consumed.
D. H+ ions donate electrons which move through the cristae; NAD+ and FADH are pumped out of the matrix; as water and oxygen are pumped back into the cristae, ATP is produced.

Answers

ATP synthesis is done as the electrons move through the  1 2 3 and 4 and hydrogen ion is pushed to the intermembrane space. As the hydrogen ion comes back to the matrix through the ATP synthase enzyme the ATP is produced.

Option C

Explanation:

ATP synthesis takes place in the mitochondria. All the hydrogen carriers get saturated through the glycolisis and the Kreb's Cycle. As these carriers comes to the inner membrane of mitochondria, there are four complexes of different electron carriers. [tex]NADH_2[/tex] goes to the complex 1 and [tex]FADH_2[/tex] goes to the complex 2.

Each complex takes the hydrogen ion from the carriers and pushes them to the intra Membranous space of the mitochondria. There the hydrogen ion concentration increases to a severe extent. As this goes on, the hydrogen ions come back to the mitochondrial matrix through a pump which is called ATP synthase which produces one ATP molecule for 3 hydrogen ion transport. Thus ATP is produced.

The oxygen is taken by cytochrome [tex]a_3[/tex] of complex 4 which is then reduced by the electrons of the hydrogen carriers and reacted with the protons to convert it to water.

Answer: It's "C"

Explanation:NAD+ and FADH donate electrons which move through the cristae; H+ ions are pumped out of the matrix; ATP and water are produced, and oxygen is consumed.

Which era is characterized by stromatolites as the most abundant fossil

Answers

Answer:

542 million years ago during the Precambrian period

Stromatolites were most abundant during the Precambrian Era. These layered structures were formed by photosynthetic cyanobacteria over 3 billion years ago. Modern-day stromatolites offer insights into early life on Earth.

The era characterized by stromatolites as the most abundant fossil is the Precambrian Era. Stromatolites, which are layered structures formed by the activity of photosynthetic cyanobacteria, have been found in fossil records dating back over 3 billion years. These microbial mats were particularly abundant during the Precambrian Era, spanning from about 4.6 billion years ago to 541 million years ago.

Key Characteristics of Stromatolites:

Formation: Created by sediment trapping by photosynthetic cyanobacteria.Structure: Consist of alternating layers of fossilized cells and calcium carbonate.Process: Cyanobacteria photosynthesize, using dissolved CO₂ to form sugar molecules, leading to calcium carbonate precipitation.

Living examples of stromatolites can still be found today, such as in Shark Bay, Western Australia, providing insight into early life on Earth.

1. Which 4 amino acids have already been added to the growing protein?

Answers

Answer:

Ribosomal RNA (rRNA)

Explanation:

associates with a set of proteins to form ribosomes. These complex structures, which physically move along an mRNA molecule, catalyze the assembly of amino acids into protein chains. They also bind tRNAs and various accessory molecules necessary for protein synthesis.

Much of the focus of environmental science is to address the environmental problems that emerged from the ____________________.
Biodiversity Revolution

Industrial Revolution

Ecological Revolution

Agricultural Revolution

Answers

Answer:

Much of the focus of environmental science is to address the environmental problems that emerged from the industrial revolution.

Explanation:

The industrial revolution affected the environment, due to rise in population which also accompanied with the standard of living which led to the exploitation of the natural resources. The use of various chemicals, as well as the fuels for running the factories caused the increased air and water pollution. With more use of fossil fuels. The industrial revolution has also other negative effects like, very bad working condition, poor living condition, low wages and child labor.

Which value is being measured in the columns labeled fraction remaining and percentage remaining

Answers

Question:

Which value is being measured in the columns labeled "Fraction remaining” and "Percentage remaining”?

years of decay quantity of energy number of stable atoms amount of material that has not decayed

Answer:

"Amount of material that has not decayed" being measured in the columns labelled "Fraction remaining” and "Percentage remaining”

Explanation:

The table shown below having explains about the half life , the  amount of sample in both fraction and percentage. The first column named half life elapsed tells  us the the number of half life that that is completed. Half life is the time taken for an element to reduce or decay into half of its initial amount.

The fraction remaining column gives the amount of sample that is left behind  after the half life particular number of half life has completed.  similarly the percentage remaining column gives the amount of sample in percentage. For example, the 5th row tells us that after 4 half life is over [tex]\frac{1}{16} th[/tex] of the sample remained. In percentage it is 6.25%

Answer:

D

Explanation:


1. Which correctly identifies a part of the atom
shown in the figure above? SC.8.P.8.7
A T: electron
B T: nucleus
C U: electron
D U: proton

Answers

Answer:

The correct answer is option C.

Explanation:

Atom has three subatomic particles;

Electron : Negatively charged species found inside an atom and outside of the nucleus.

Proton: Positively charged species found inside the nucleus of an atom.

Electron : Neutral charge species found inside the nucleus of an atom

Generally an atom is an electrically neutral species with equal number of electrons and protons.

According to question,The correct labeling of the U is an electron.

The part of the atom that is shown in the diagram is the U as electron that is in option C. Electrons are negatively charged subatomic particles that are present outside of the nucleus. So option C is correct.

Protons are positively charged subatomic particles found within the nucleus of an atom. They have a relative charge of +1 and a relative mass of approximately 1 atomic mass unit (amu). The number of protons in an atom's nucleus determines its atomic number, which is a fundamental property used to identify elements. Neutrons are electrically neutral subatomic particles also located in the nucleus of an atom. They do not carry any charge, so their relative charge is 0. Neutrons have a mass similar to protons, approximately 1 amu. Electrons are negatively charged subatomic particles that orbit the nucleus in specific energy levels, or electron shells. 

Hence, electron is correct option . So, option C is correct.

Learn more about the electron here.

https://brainly.com/question/12001116

#SPJ3

Muscle cells have many
mitochondria that provide the
energy needed to move the body.
TRUE
FALSE

Answers

True because the mitochondria is the major organelle that provides energy for the body

Answer:

True

Explanation: As mitochondria is the powerhouse of the cell it produces ATPs which are responsible for muscle cell functioning

Other Questions
prokaryotic cells have membrane enclosed cells structures Mos farm stand sold a total of 165 pounds of apples and peaches. She sold apples for $1.75 per pound and peaches for $2.50 per pound. If she made $337.50, how many pounds of peaches did she sell? The mean diameters of Mars and Earth are 6.9 x 10^3 km and 1.3 x 10^4 km, respectively. The mass of Mars is 0.11 times Earths mass. a) What is the ratio of the mean density (mass per unit volume) of Mars to that of Earth? b) What is the value of the gravitational acceleration on Mars? c) What is the escape speed on Mars? In the United States, people who live in urban areas have a life expectancy ______ years longer than those who live in rural areas. The following 5 questions are based on this information: An economist claims that average weekly food expenditure of households in City 1 is more than that of households in City 2. She surveys 35 households in City 1 and obtains an average weekly food expenditure of $164. A sample of 30 households in City 2 yields an average weekly expenditure of $159. Historical data reveals that the population standard deviation for City 1 and City 2 are $12.50 and $9.25, respectively.Col1 City 1 x1(bar)=164 (1)=12.5 n(1)=35Col2 City 2 x2 (bar) =159 (2) =9.25 n2=30Let (1) be the mean weekly food expenditure for City 1 and (2) be that for City 2.1. To test the economists claim, the competing hypotheses should be formulated asSelect one:a. H0:1-2>0 versus Ha:1-20b. H0:1-20 versus Ha:1-2 You are in mid-latitudes in winter. You experience heavy snow followed by a dramatic drop in temperature as a cold front passes, but for almost 24 hours the weather is clear. Then, high clouds appear in the west, thicken to stratus clouds and you receive a light new snowfall (aka snow flurries) but the temperature remains cold. You have just seen the passage of: A) a second cold front D) a warm front C) an occluded front D) None of these If short-run marginal cost and average variable cost curves for a competitive firm are given by SMC = 2 + 4Q, and AVC = 2 + 2Q, a)how many units of output will it produce at a market price of $10? (15 points)b)At what level of fixed cost will this firm earn zero economic profit? PLLLZ HELP HAVE A DEADLINE 30 POINTS Suppose is an angle in the standard position whose terminal side is in Quadrant IV and cot = - 3/7 . Find the exact values of the five remaining trigonometric functions of . A farmer uses two types of fertilizers. A 50-lb bag of Fertilizer A contains 8 lb of nitrogen, 2 lb of phosphorus, and 4 lb of potassium. A 50-lb bag of Fertilizer B contains 5 lb each of nitrogen, phosphorus, and potassium. The minimum requirements for a field are 440 lb of nitrogen, 260 lb of phosphorus, and 360 lb of potassium. If a 50-lb bag of Fertilizer A costs $80 and a 50-lb bag of Fertilizer B costs $30, find the amount of each type of fertilizer the farmer should use to minimize his cost C in dollars while still meeting the minimum requirements. (Let x represent the number of bags of Fertilizer A and y represent the number of bags of Fertilizer B.) Brainliest, a lot of points, please help. Instruction: Compare the following well-formed translations with grammatically incorrect sentences (indicated with an asterisk at the beginning) and note any patterns you recognize:(wrong is the ones with the *)EnglishRightWrongI feel like eating a hamburger.Tengo ganas de comer una hamburguesa. *Yo siento comer una hamburguesa. She doesn't feel like studying.Ella no tiene ganas de estudiar. *Ella no siente querer estudiar. I am 15 years old. Yo tengo quince aos.*Yo soy quince.I'm thirsty.Tengo sed.*Yo soy sed.I am cold. Yo tengo fro.*Yo soy fro.The next questions asks what is your "hunch" when comparing the correct and incorrect sentences. The manager of the Danvers-Hilton Resort Hotel stated that the mean guest bill for a weekendis $600 or less. Amember of the hotels accounting staff noticed that the total chargesfor guest bills have been increasing in recent months. The accountant will use a sample ofweekend guest bills to test the managers claim.a. Which form of the hypotheses should be used to test the managers claim? Explain.$H0:600Ha:600H0:=600Ha:600$b. What conclusion is appropriate when H0 cannot be rejected?c. What conclusion is appropriate when H0 can be rejected? What term describes people who share similar characteristics but little else, such as all women attending college, all left-handed people, or all men over seven feet tall? (12345678), X=(1357), Y=(158) find (1)X' n Y (2) (X' u Y)' Arnolds entire workout consisted of 10 minutes of warm-up exercises, 25 minutes of lifting weights, and 15 minutes on the treadmill. What was the ratio of the number of minutes he lifted weights to the total number of minutes of his entire workout? Nebuchadnezzar is remembered for Select one: A. destroying Jerusalem and the temple. B. welcoming Jews fleeing the destruction of Jerusalem. C. destroying the Hanging Gardens. D. first recording the Indo-European language. E. subduing the Neo-Babylonians. A seated cable row is an example of which level of training in the NASM OPT model? A. StabilizationB. StrengthC. PowerD. Reactive Susan, a U.S. citizen, builds and operates a kennel in France. This action is an example of a. U.S. foreign portfolio investment and U.S. domestic investment. b. investment for Susan and U.S. foreign portfolio investment. c. U.S. foreign direct investment and U.S. domestic investment. d. investment for Susan and U.S. foreign direct investment. What scientist is credited with proposing the principle of uniformitarianism?O James HuttonO Nicolaus StenoO John Wesley PowellO William Smith The NHTSA estimates that ___% of the 11,510 drivers with a BAC of .01 or higher who were involved in fatal crashes had BAC levels at or above .08. Assume the input data is structured as follows: first there is a non-negative integer specifying the number of employee timesheets to be read in. This is followed by data for each of the employees. The first number for each employee is an integer that specifies their pay per hour in cents. Following this are 5 integers , the number of hours they worked on each of the days of the workweek. Given this data, and given that an int variable total has been declared , write a loop and any necessary code that reads the data and stores the total payroll of all employees in total. Note that you will have to add up the numbers worked by each employee and multiply that by that particular employees pay rate to get the employees pay for the week and sum those values into total.ASSUME the availability of a variable , stdin, that references a Scanner object associated with standard input. Steam Workshop Downloader