Answer:
Survivors should be notified that they could change their class shedule and living situation to avoid the person who assoulted them.
Explanation:
The Campus Sexual Assault Survivor's Bill of RIghts what stablished in 1992 in order to protect victims fo sexaul assault.
This item right here is very important, survirors should be told about their rights of changing their activities, classes or living situation in order to feel safe. This among other items should be guaranteed for the victim.
The Campus Sexual Assault Survivor's Bill of Rights includes not subjecting complainants or witnesses to disciplinary sanctions for minor policy violations related to the incident, enforcing an affirmative consent standard, and mandating comprehensive prevention and outreach programs.
Explanation:Items included in the Campus Sexual Assault Survivor’s Bill of Rights are vast and detailed, intended to protect and support survivors of sexual assault on campuses. For example, one of the rights assures that individuals participating as a complainant or witness in an investigation will not be subject to disciplinary sanctions for a violation of the institution's student conduct policy at or near the time of the incident, with specific exceptions for egregious acts. Other notable aspects include the affirmative consent standard and the requirement for institutions to implement comprehensive prevention and outreach programs addressing sexual assault, domestic violence, dating violence, and stalking.
The rights listed aim to create a safer environment for all students and to ensure that survivors receive appropriate support and resources. Specific items like providing written notifications about available resources, conducting preliminary and comprehensive interviews, and protective measures against sanctions for minor policy violations during the incident reporting are articulated to establish a robust framework of victim-centered policies.
What information found in a family health tree indicates that a disease might have a genetic link?A) a family member with multiple cancersB) presence of a disease in family members with poor health habitsC) appearance of a disease in one family memberD) onset of a disease at a late age
Answer:A) a family member with multiple cancers.
Explanation:
A pedigree tree reveals the family history of disease associated with any family member in the past which can be linked to present living members.
Cancer is a genetic disorder. It is caused by the mutation in one of the functional genes. This leads to abnormal growth of cells in the form of tumor. It is a heritable genetic disorder. The mutation may be pass to the next generation. Thus the appearence of disorder in generations can be traced with pedigree tree. The family member with multiple cancer has acquired cancer from previous generations.
Answer:
C
Explanation:
Carlos is a healthy 19-year-old college student who is sedentary. He is 5'11" tall and weighs 175 pounds. How many grams of protein would you recommend he consume each day? a) 55 grams b) 64 grams c) 75 grams d) 84 grams
Answer:
B) 64 grams
Explanation:
In order to calculate the recommended daily consumption for a specific person, you first have to make sure their weight is measured in kilograms:
(175 lbs) / 2.2
= 79.5 kg
Then multiply by the recommended daily intake of protein per kilogram:
79.5 kg x 0.8 grams/kg
= 64 grams
The recommended daily protein intake for an average sedentary man is typically 56 grams, but due to Carlos' weight (175 pounds, or about 80 kilograms), a higher intake of around 0.8 grams per kilogram of body weight is suggested. Therefore, Carlos should aim for around 64 grams of protein per day.
Explanation:Protein recommendations vary based on factors such as age, gender, activity level and body weight. According to the Dietary Reference Intake (DRI), the recommended daily protein intake for an average sedentary man is approximately 56 grams, which might not be quite enough for Carlos' weight. However, some health and nutrition organizations recommend a higher intake based on body weight, suggesting 0.8 grams of protein per kilogram of body weight. In Carlos' case, this equates to approximately 64 grams (he weighs about 80 kilograms).
Therefore, based on these guidelines, the best answer would be b) 64 grams of protein per day.
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A client is to take nifedipine (Adalat) 10 mg PO tid. How many milligrams will the client take per dose?
Answer:
The answer is 10 mg.
Explanation:
Nifedipine (Adalat)- this is a medication that works as a muscle relaxant. It primarily targets the muscles of the heart, thus it is used in treating hypertension (high-blood pressure).
The statement above says, the client is to take Nifedipine (Adalat) 10 mg PO tid. "PO" means that the medication is to be taken orally or by mouth, while "tid" means three times a day. This means that the patient will be taking the medication of 10 mg per dose, three times daily.
So, that would be a total of 30 mg in one day.
Thus, the answer is 10 mg.
Which of the following are typical brain changes that occur during infancy and childhood?
The given question is incomplete. The complete question is as follows:
Which of the following are typical brain changes that occur during infancy and childhood?
The number of synaptic connections increases greatly.
Some parts of the brain nearly double in size.
Unneeded brain cells are purged over time.
Answer:
All options are correct.
Explanation:
The human brain do not get fully developed at the time of birth. Different physical and structural changes occur that are important for the changes in the brain structure.
The size of the brain gets increases and thinking ability increase with the age. Synaptic connections that are present in the brain nearly increases and their number increases. The damaged cells and the cells that are not required are removed from the brain.
Thus, all the options are correct.
The ability to perform large muscle whole body physical activity of moderate to high intensity for relatively long periods of time is
Answer:
Aerobic endurance.
Explanation:
Aerobic endurance is the ability to perform large muscle, whole body physical activity of moderate to high intensity over extended periods of time.
A person suffering from bulimia nervosa will binge on food and then do which of the following:
Answer:
Provoke vomiting.
Explanation:
Bulimia nervosa is an eating disorder characterized by rapid and repeated consumption of large amounts of food (binge eating episodes) followed by attempts to compensate for excess food consumed (eg, by purging, vomit, fasting or exercising).
The person eats large amounts of food and then induces his own vomiting, uses laxatives, does a diet, fasts, or vigorously exercises to compensate. Several actions can be used to counteract the effects of excessive food intake:
Practice purging, for example by inducing vomiting itself (self-induced vomiting) or taking laxatives or diuretics (medicines that make the kidneys excrete more water) Follow strict regimes or fasts Overworking Any combination of the aboveA healthful weight __________. A healthful weight __________. is compatible with normal blood pressure, blood glucose, and lipid levels. requires constant dieting. is indicated by a BMI below 25.0. should be similar to the weight of your peers.
Answer:
is compatible with normal bood pressure, blood glucose and lipid levels.
Explanation:
In addition to good nutrition and exercise, what indicates that we have a healthy weight is normal blood pressure, blood glucose, and lipid levels.
There is a strong correlation between excess weight and heart disease, as well as high cholesterol and triglyceride levels.
BMI does not take things like bone or muscle mass into consideration.
which item most significantly reduces your changes of being killed or seriously injured in a motor vehicle accident?
____ carbohydrates do not take long to digest and therefore cause blood sugar levels to rise choices are: 1. trace2. simple 3. complex
Answer:
The correct answer will be option-simple carbohydrates
Explanation:
The Biochemists classified the Carbohydrates as simple and complex carbohydrates.
The simple carbohydrates are the carbohydrates which are composed of only one or two types of sugar while complex carbohydrates are the carbohydrates which are composed of more than two types of sugars.
Since the simple carbohydrates are composed of only one or two types of sugar, therefore, they are digested by the humans easily and thus their level rises very faster in the blood.
Thus, simple carbohydrates are the correct answer.
Answer:
Simple carbohydrates
Explanation:
Simple carbohydrates are broken down quickly by the body to be used as energy. Simple carbohydrates are found naturally in foods such as fruits, milk, and milk products. They are also found in processed and refined sugars such as candy, table sugar, syrups, and soft drinks.
After teaching a group of students about major divisions of the brain, the instructor determines that additional teaching is needed when the students identify what as part of the hindbrain?
Answer:
Hypothalamus.
Explanation:
Brain is the most important organ of the body. Brain coordinates the other functions of the body and brain is involved in the thinking process of the individual.
The brain is divided into the three parts known as forebrain, midbrain and hindbrain. The hypothalamus is located in the diencephalon part of the forebrain. The identification of the hypothalamus in the hindbrain states that the child require further teaching of the brain.
Thus, the answer is hypothalamus.
An experimental study focuses on the effects that the amount of exercise has on the number of calories consumed per day. The number of calories that a participant consumes is represented by the ____.
Answer: Dependent Variable
Explanation:
When conducting an experiment such as the one described in the question above, there are a number of variables that are expected to be used and one of such variables is the dependent variable. Another is independent variable we also have continuous variable and confounding variable.
So to know the effects of the exercise on the amount of calories consumed, one will need to represent the calories by the “dependent variable” and this is because the dependent variable represents the output or outcome and it is the dependent variable whose variation is being studied.
The number of calories consumed is represented by the dependent variable in this study.
Explanation:The number of calories that a participant consumes is represented by the dependent variable in this experimental study, which is the amount of exercise. The independent variable in this study is the number of calories consumed per day. By manipulating the amount of exercise and measuring the corresponding change in calorie consumption, researchers can determine the effects exercise has on calorie intake. In this case, that other variable is the amount of exercise that the participant engages in. As the amount of exercise increases or decreases, it is hypothesized that the number of calories consumed will likewise increase or decrease, respectively. Therefore, the calorie consumption is represented by this variable which is expected to change.
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When and how should you use physical contact with children?
Answer:by looking at them with love and care and not uglyness and disappointment
Explanation:
The client is a 35-year-old with Down syndrome. He is on the nurse's unit following heart surgery. He is very weak and has had difficulty with his activities of daily living. Which statement is an example of his nurse using advocacy as a style of client communication?A. "If you don't get up right now to take a walk, you may develop a blood clot. Wouldn't your family be so stressed if you had to stay in the hospital longer?"B. "You have to get up to shower; otherwise you may get a blood clot."C. "I know that it has been difficult for you to walk to the bathroom to brush your teeth. How can we make this work for you?"D. "There are starving children all over the world who would love to eat your food."
Answer:
C.
Explanation:
Nursing care is developed through a therapeutic relationship or also called help, which is established through dialogue and listening. Therefore, if the nursing professional knows how to communicate properly and establish a successful relationship within the healthcare context, he is assured of his professional success.
The nurse uses situations of the daily routine to empathize with the patient, and thus make him feel better.
Answer:
C.
Explanation:
"I know that it has been difficult for you to walk to the bathroom to brush your teeth. How can we make this work for you?"
You know how to tie your shoes, and when you do, the procedure can be carried out non-consciously. This is an example of _____ memory.
Answer:
It should be implicit learning
Explanation:
The legal and administrative management of claims against the healthcare organization for incidents, occurrences, or malpractice is called _________.
Answer:Claims management
Explanation: claims management is the term used to describe the processes and steps taken both legal and administrative to ensure a health management organization pays or caters for the bills incurred during the treatment,care for incidents, occurrence or malpractice. Claims management involves both the healthcare provider,the Insurance company and the policyholder ( the subscriber) claims management is guided by Law.
Answer:
Claims management.
Explanation:
Claims management means handling matters related to customers or third parties bringing a claim against a party or claims by a party against customers or third parties, including investigations, litigation support, and settlements.
Shock can occur with any injury that severely lowers blood pressure and other vital functions.
Answer:
True.
Explanation:
Hypotension is also known as low blood pressure and some individuals are unaffected by the hypotension. The low blood pressure occurs when the individuals has blood pressure less than 70.
The excess low blood pressure can cause dizziness and fainting in the individual. This might can cause shock and sometime the problem gets so worse that individual require proper medical attention and can be shifted into the ICU.
Thus, the answer is true.
The nurse is caring for a client with cystic fibrosis who is receiving dornase alfa by nebulizer to help thin secretions. What statement by the client indicates a need for further instruction?
Answer: I am glad that this medication will solve all of my problems.
Explanation:
Dornase alfa is a drug which is used to reduce the viscosity of mucous by lysis of mucous. This helps in secreation of mucous from the lungs in condition of cystic fibrosis where excessive mucous develops in the lungs. This drug treatment is not the permenant treatment of cystic fibrosis. Hence, the patient must not relay on this temporary treatment.
Cystic fibrosis causes abnormally thick mucus, leading to frequent lung infections, malabsorption, and impaired lung defenses. Dornase alfa is used to thin the mucus, aiding in its clearance. A client's misunderstanding of dornase alfa's use indicates a need for further instruction.
Explanation:Cystic fibrosis is an autosomal recessive genetic disease characterized by the production of abnormally thick and sticky mucus that can clog respiratory and digestive organs. This condition often results in frequent lung infections and problems with nutrient absorption due to malabsorption. In the respiratory system, the altered mucus that is dry and caked impairs lung defenses by blocking airways, hampering the function of ciliated epithelia, and creating an environment conducive to bacterial biofilms. These biofilms protect the bacteria from both the body's immune response and antibiotic treatments, leading to persistent and difficult-to-treat infections. Dornase alfa, a medication administered through a nebulizer, works by cleaving DNA in the thick mucus, thus thinning it and aiding in its clearance from the lungs. If a client with cystic fibrosis expresses misunderstanding or misuse of dornase alfa, this would indicate a need for further instruction from the healthcare provider.
According to the Optimum Performance Training (OPT) model, which of the following is a goal of the Maximal Strength Phase of training?
a. Decrease metabolic demand
b. Increase the amount of fat loss
c. Decrease the volume of training
d. Increase peak force production
Answer:
Increase peak force production.
Explanation:
Optimum Performance Training may be defined as the training fitness system developed by the NASM. This model is mainly based on the scientific experiments and results.
The five different training phase of this model are stabilization endurance, strength endurance,maximal strength, hypertrophy and power. This model mainly increase the the peak force production and the individual can attain the fitness and goals.
Thus, the correct answer is option (d).
Answer:
D.stabilization endurance training
Explanation:
The objectives of stabilization and endurance training involve:
Correcting muscle imbalances.
Improving stabilization of the core.
Preventing tissue overload by preparing muscles, tendons, ligaments, and joints for the upcoming imposed demands of training.
Improving overall cardiovascular and neuromuscular condition.
Establishing proper movement patterns and exercise technique.
I need help with this question.
Examination OF: Right hip:
Diagnosis: Primary unilateral osteoarthritis right hip.
ONE-VIEW Right Hip: A single frontal view is obtained of the right hip. No previous studies are available for comparison. Right hip arthroplasty is seen. Alignment appears grossly unremarkable on this single view. There are skin staples present. Air is seen in the soft tissues, likely due to recent surgery. There appear to be two drains present. The tip of one overlies the soft tissues superolateral to the greater trochanter. The second one is more inferior. The tip overlies the right proximal femoral prosthesis.
IMPRESSION: Single view of the right hip with findings consistent with recent right total hip arthroplasty. I have 73501 for the CPT code and M16.11 for one of the ICD-10-CM code I'm looking for the other ICD-10-CM code
Answer: Hello, you can use the following codes:
ICD-10 M169: coxarthrosis unspecified or ICD-10 Z998: other specified postsurgical states
Explanation: if you want to refer to the disease use the first code, if you want to refer to the current state of the patient the second code explains the procedure to which he was subjected.
Which of the following outcomes have researchers linked to poverty in late adulthood?
Check all that apply:a. increased risk of earlier deathb. having an active lifestyle
c. increase in physical and mental health problems
d. having cognitive stimulation
e. lower levels of physical and cognitive fitness
Answer:
C
Explanation:
Increase in physical and mental health problems as a result of poverty.
Answer:
The correct answer is option c. increase in physical and mental health problems .
Explanation:
The researchers say that poverty and mental health must be studied and investigated at the same time. This study should include economic research that has been proven to cause mental health in adulthood.
Poverty can be both a cause and a consequence of mental problems in a person. Having mental problems can affect your social, economic and physical status, and having problems in these areas can easily lead to poverty.
Given this information we can say that the correct answer is option C.
Which of the following expresses the gonadal dose that, if received by every member of the population, would be expected to produce the same total genetic effect on that population as the actual doses received by each of the individuals?
Answer:
The correct option is A: Genetically Significant dose
Explanation:
The Genetically significant dose is a term used to represent an approximate of the genetic importance of gonad doses, also known as radiation doses or gonad radiation doses. It expresses the gonadal dose that if received by an entire population, the expectation would be to produce the same genetic effect on the entire population as the authentic doses taken by each individual.
The form of brain damage identified as prosopagnosia is primarily characterized by an inability to Group of answer choices
identify inverted stimuli even though perception of upright stimuli seems normal.
recognize faces. identify familiar voices.
comprehend written text.
Answer:
The form of brain damage identified as prosopagnosia is primarily characterized by an inability to recognize faces.
Explanation:
Prosopagnosia, also known as 'face blindness' is a neurological disorder of face recognition which is the 'ability to recognize' familiar faces is impaired while the other features of visual processing and intellectual functioning remains pristine. Prosopagnosia was originally used to refer to a condition followed by 'acute brain damage' but a congenital form of it also exists. The area of the brain which is specifically associated with 'prosopagnosia' is fusiform gyrus. It is found that prosopagnosia is also associated with disorders that are related with surrounding brain areas.Monroe is a healthy 55-year-old man who performs moderate-intensity physical activities and muscle strengthening exercises to stay fit.
According to recommendations of the U.S. Department of Health and Human Services, he should perform ________ minutes of moderately intense physical activity each week.
A. 150 B. 100 C. 75 D. 200
Answer:
Monroe is a healthy 55-year-old man who performs moderate-intensity physical activities and muscle strengthening exercises to stay fit.
According to recommendations of the U.S. Department of Health and Human Services, he should perform (A) 150 minutes of moderately intense physical activity each week.
Explanation:
The US health and human services department recommends about performing of moderate intensity exercise and exercises related to strengthening of muscle. In accordance with their recommendations an adult must perform the moderate intensity exercises for 150 minutes in a week. It also States that an adult must perform exercises for strengthening of muscle 2 times a week. They can also engage themselves in performing aerobic exercises and vigorous activities for their health benefits.
When preparing a client for the application of a local anesthetic, what would be most important?
Answer: Inspecting the application area for intactness.
Explanation:
The anesthesia is applied to the part of body on which the treatment is to be done. It is used to numb the body part and also to induce sleep in cases of stress. Special care must be taken while applying the anesthesia. This can be given orally or intravenously through cannula. The dose of anesthesia is of concern overdose can lead to coma, allergy or other adverse reactions.
The nursing instructor is explaining the four types of allergic reaction to the nursing students. The instructor explains that allergic rhinitis is a:_________
Answer:
Type I hypersensitivity reaction
Explanation:
Type I reactions (ie, immediate hypersensitivity reactions) involve immunoglobulin E (IgE)–mediated release of histamine and other mediators from mast cells and basophils. Examples include anaphylaxis and allergic rhinoconjunctivitis. An example is contact dermatitis from poison ivy or nickel allergy.
The need for iron is greater in __________. The need for iron is greater in __________. women during pregnancy people who use tobacco menopausal women men who engage in strenuous physical activity.
Answer:
women during pregnancy
Explanation:
Iron is a mineral of extreme importance to the development of the fetus. In the third trimester of pregnancy this need increases even more, and it is common to use supplementation to prevent anemia in the mother. Iron called “heme” is the best absorbed by our body, present mainly in red meat. Non-heme iron, present in dark green vegetables and grains, has a lower absorption power. However, it is possible to enhance their action by combining these foods with other sources of vitamin C, such as orange, acerola, lemon, berries and tangerine.
The baby will receive the food and oxygen through mothers blood, so her body need to produce it more. To make this possible and to have all the components mother and baby need, iron consumption is very important. Anemia is produced when this mineral is not sufficient, producing a deficiency of red blood cells in the body or the amount of hemoglobin that the blood cells contain. If anemia happens, the baby may suffer from some impacts, such as premature birth or low birth weight, as he will not receive all the oxygen he needs.
The Total Force Fitness (TFF) Program is an integrative and holistic framework to better understand, assess, and maintain the fitness of the ______________. a. Redeployed forceb. Combat armsc. Joint forced. Deployed force
Answer:
The correct answer will be option-Joint force
Explanation:
The concept of Total Force Fitness was introduced to promote the health, advancement of the prevention and extending the concept of health.
This holistic and comprehensive approach was to extend the concept of health just from the physical domain to the body, mind, medical, nutritional, psychological, behavioural, social and spiritual domains.
The program was started to understand the fitness of joint force by placing the individuals in the centre of these eight domains and studying the effect of these domains on the individual person.
Thus, Joint force is the correct answer.
The Total Force Fitness Program helps to understand, assess, and maintain the fitness of the Joint force. It is a holistic framework that includes physical, psychological, social, spiritual, and environmental aspects to prepare the Joint force to adjust to varying situations and demands.
Explanation:The Total Force Fitness (TFF) Program is an integrative and holistic framework designed to better understand, assess, and maintain the fitness of the Joint force. This health program prioritizes holistic well-being by focusing on multiple aspects of fitness, which includes physical, psychological, social, spiritual, and environmental elements. The aim of this comprehensive approach is to build a balanced, resilient, and ready Joint force that can adapt to changing environments and demands.
For example, rather than just focusing on traditional physical exercises and nutritional aspects (though they're important components), the TFF Program also encourages mental resilience training and promotes positive social interactions, as well as emphasizing the importance of maintaining spiritual health and environmental awareness. This multifaceted approach to fitness allows members of the Joint force to be ready to meet any challenges they may face.
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-----------------has seen declining population numbers in recent years due to AIDS. has a relatively high GNI per capita.
Answer the burden of HIV/AIDS
Explanation:
Which statement indicates that more teaching is necessary for the patient taking ergotamine?
Answer and Explanation:
Ergotamine has been used for over 50 years and was the first specific drug to treat migraine attacks. Its therapeutic effect is due in part to its ability to contract the vessels. It is a vasoconstricting alkaloid used in migraine attacks, when treatment with non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs has no effect.
The mechanism of action of ergotamine is complex. The molecule has structural similarities to neurotransmitters such as seratonin, dopamine and adrenaline, and can therefore bind to various receptors and function as an inhibitor. Its use in the treatment of migraines is due to its vasoconstrictor effect of extracerebral intracranial blood vessels through their binding to the 5-HT1B receptor and inhibition of neurotransmitter binding.
Overuse of ergotamine may cause nausea, vomiting (to direct effects on the Central Nervous System in the vomiting centers) , malaise, headache, constriction of peripheral vessels and more severe effects such as ischemia of the extremities.
Ergotamine poisoning is called ergotism.
Ergotamine should not be used in patients with peripheral arterial or venous vascular insufficiency, ischemic heart disease, cerebrovascular disease, systemic infection and hypertension without effective control.
Jessie is using the DECIDE model to help her determine the best option for birth control. After evaluating all the options, she determines a diaphragm will be the best choice. Jessie is at the _________ stage of the DECIDE model.
Answer:
Identify
Explanation:
Jessie is using the DECIDE model to help her determine the best option for birth control. After evaluating all the options, she determines a diaphragm will be the best choice. Jessie is at the Identify stage of the DECIDE model.