Do not use AED if victim is lying in water.
Do not use AED if chest is covered with sweat or water.
Do not put an AED pad over a medication patch.
Do not place AED pad over a pacemaker (hard lump under chest skin).
AEDs, sadly, can cause a cardiac arrest to occur, and, could lead to the eventual death of that individual.
The majority of _______ contain no fatty acids.
Answer:
Explanation:
The answer is sterols
_____ is a disease in which the fear of being overweight causes a person to severely limit their food intake by dieting and fasting.
A.
Anorexia nervosa
B.
Bulimia nervosa
C.
Cachexia
D.
Binge eating
A. Anorexia Nervosa
Glad I could help!
A. Anorexia Nervosa.
Its anorexic diseasus.
What is the most effective way to stop bullying?
get bystanders involved
stay silent
avoid going to school
isolate yourself
What kind of chemical reaction do amino acids go through to form a protein?
A. Combination
B. Decomposition
C. Reduction
D. Displacement
The chemical reaction that amino acids go through to form a protein is
known as Combination.
Different types of amino acids fuse together to form a protein through the
combination of two or more amino acids.
The amino acids are usually gotten from natural sources such as plants
and animals and are pivotal in body-building.
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what does it mean when somebody says something about your spirit animal and give a good explanation plz
When someone is talking about your spirit animal, they are referring to the animal that would guide you through life. It can play the role of protector and provides guidance. It’s like a “personal guide or protector” that has a personal affinity with the person it’s associated with. Spirit animals show you that you need to get over something, or face a fear. It can also relate to how you act and are as a person. I recommend taking an online quiz to see which one might work for you. It'll be a lot easier when knowing your spirit animal to bring it up in a conversation.
Answer:
A person or character that represents your inner personality. Someone who behaves as though they are showing your feelings through their own actions.
Explanation:
Hope this help u out. : ) .If not sorry : (
Which BMI standard for teens is considered under weight?
A. Less than 5th percentile
B. 85th percentile to less than the 95th percentile
C. more than the 95th percentile
If you have the Unit 8 Lesson 4 PEFOUND Final Test please let me know
A less than 5th percentile
underweight is 0 - 4th percentile
The Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) defines underweight as a BMI that is less than the 5th percentile for age and sex. This means that a teen's BMI is lower than 95% of other teens of the same age and sex. Hence the correct option is A.
A BMI of the 85th percentile to less than the 95th percentile is considered overweight, and a BMI of more than the 95th percentile is considered obese.
It is important to note that BMI is just one measure of a person's weight and health. Other factors, such as body fat percentage, muscle mass, and overall health, should also be considered when assessing a person's weight status.
If you are concerned about your teen's weight, talk to your doctor. They can help you assess your teen's BMI and other health factors and recommend healthy eating and exercise habits.
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Dana was required by her employer to take a drug test after Dana reported work-related carpal tunnel syndrome. Her employer had no reasonable basis for suspecting that drug use could have contributed to her condition, and it had no other reasonable basis for requiring her to take a drug test. Rather, her employer routinely subjects all employees who report work-related injuries to a drug test regardless of the circumstances surrounding the injury. The state workers' compensation program applicable to the employer did not address drug testing, and no other state or federal law requires the employer to drug test employees who sustain injuries at work. Did the employer subject Dana to a drug test to retaliate against her for reporting a workplace injury?1.
A ------ YES
B ------ NO
The state workers' compensation program applicable to the employer did not address drug testing, and no other state or federal law requires the employer to drug test employees who sustain injuries at work is yes.
What is carpal tunnel syndrome ?Carpal tunnel syndrome is caused by pressure on the median nerve.
The carpal tunnel is a narrow aisle surrounded by bones and ligaments on the palm side of the hand.
When the median nerve is compressed, symptoms can contain numbness, tingling, and weakness in the hand and arm.
Thus, no other state or federal law requires the employer to drug test employees who sustain injuries at work is yes.
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What do you think American writer, politician, and actor Will Rogers meant when he said, “There is nothing so stupid as the educated man if you get him talking about something he wasn’t educated in.”
Answer:
Will Rogers meant pointed that we all are ignorant but in different fields. If we take that thought about Rogers and read the given excerpt, we'll see that it makes totally sense.
Rogers often said, that educations is the only weapon that can kill movies, that is, leisure is the enemy of education, it makes people more ignorant. However, even "educated" people are ignorants in some way, because it's impossible to know about everything, it's just not possible, and this can be demonstrated, if you take a lawyer, and put him into a health situation, we will be seen as the most ignorant person in the world, because he's an expert in laws, but not in diagnosing people, and curing them
Therefore, with this quote, Will Rogers pointed that we don't know everything, we all are ignorants at some point.Is health insurance worth it? Explain.
definitely not because you still have to pay if you get hurt, and your insurance rate goes up and because of that you are paying more than you would of if you didnt have it
Write a 150 word description of two ways that you will increase and improve your activity level and explain how you will implement them and how you will determine its effectiveness.
Morning jogs are one way to improve my activity level. One way to determine its effectiveness, is to pay attention to how long you can run at a time without needing to stop. Another way to improve physical activity, would be to spend an hour outside everyday. Whether it be to go on a walk, or play sports with friends. Being able to do this everyday would help my health very well!
You can write the rest about the details of what sports you would play, or where you would run to! You can also let me know where you would run and what sports and I can write the rest!!
The first way in which I would improve my activity level would be by walking everywhere, as opposed to driving. This would force me to exercise while gorcery shopping, going to school or running errands. I would measure this by using a pedometer. The other measure I would implement would be lifting weights at home before school. I would measure the effectiveness of this routine by tracking the weight I'm lifting, and whether this improves over time.
How can flexibility training reduce the risk of back pain
Flexibility training can reduce the risk of back pain because it can help improve the poor posture responsible for back pain.
Hope This Helped
Answer:
the answer is B. It can help improve the poor posture responsible for back pain. on edge.
Explanation:
For which group of people did Elisabeth Kübler-Ross initially develop the stages of grief?
A ) the bereaved
B ) senior citizens
C ) dying patients
D ) young children
Elisabeth Kübler-Ross developed the stages of grief for dying patients, which are denial, anger, bargaining, depression, and acceptance, as outlined in her book On Death and Dying.
Explanation:The stages of grief were initially developed by Elisabeth Kübler-Ross for dying patients. In her classic 1969 book On Death and Dying, Kübler-Ross outlined the five stages of grief which are denial, anger, bargaining, depression, and acceptance. Her research was primarily focused on observing the emotional journey of people who were confronting their own mortality.
The five stages are not necessarily experienced in a linear progression and not everyone will experience all the stages. However, these stages have provided a general framework for understanding how people may cope with grief and loss. While initially developed to understand and empathize with those facing terminal illnesses, the model has also been used more broadly to describe reactions to other types of loss.
The stages of grief developed by Elisabeth Kü-bler-Ross were initially intended for dying patients as a way to describe their emotional responses to their own mortality.
Explanation:Elisabeth Kü-bler-Ross initially developed the stages of grief for dying patients. This model was first introduced in her 1969 book, On Death and Dying, where she outlined the five stages of grief: denial, anger, bargaining, depression, and acceptance. Kü-bler-Ross observed that these stages were not necessarily experienced in a linear fashion and not all individuals would experience every stage. Hospice care often utilizes this model to support individuals facing terminal illnesses.
When Yolanda got home from school, no one was there. She expected to see her mother, who had promised to take her to the mall after school. Yolanda plopped on the couch and began to cry. Then she got up, stomped up the stairs, and slammed her bedroom door. Which BEST describes the first step Yolanda should take in managing her emotions
taking deep breaths and call her mom or look for her (in the house)
activated charcoal is an example of a: gel, suspension, elixer or solution
the answer is suspension.
Muscular endurance training involves which concept?
A. Lifting 3 sets of 8-12 reps
B. Lifting 3 sets of 4-6 reps
C. Lifting 2 sets of 10-20 reps
D. Lifting 2 sets of 4-8 reps
Muscular endurance training involves the concept lifting 2 sets of 10-20 reps or C.
Which of the following is true assumption about people with disabilities who face challenging behavioral situations
You did not give any choices
True assumptions about people with disabilities who face challenging behavioral situations include the influence of disability-related factors on their behavior and the need for individualized support and accommodations to address these challenges.
One true assumption about people with disabilities who face challenging behavioral situations is that their behavior may be influenced by factors related to their disability. These factors can include sensory issues, communication difficulties, or cognitive impairments.
For example, individuals with autism spectrum disorder may exhibit challenging behaviors such as meltdowns or self-stimulatory behaviors. These behaviors can be a result of sensory overload or difficulty with communication and social interactions.
Another true assumption is that people with disabilities who face challenging behavioral situations may require additional support and accommodations to manage their behavior effectively. This can include implementing strategies such as visual schedules, social stories, or sensory breaks to help regulate their behavior.
It is important to recognize that each individual with a disability is unique and may require different approaches to address their challenging behaviors. Therefore, it is crucial to have a person-centered approach that takes into account their specific needs, abilities, and strengths.
Complete question :-
Which of the following is true assumption about people with disabilities who face challenging behavioral situations:
a) Disabilities have no impact on behavior.
b) Behavior in people with disabilities is always intentional.
c) Challenging behaviors may result from disability-related factors.
d) One-size-fits-all approaches are suitable for addressing challenging behaviors in people with disabilities.
e) Personalized support and accommodations are unnecessary for individuals with disabilities.
What is an example of positive peer pressure?
when a peer pushes you to do something that will benefit you in a good way
Positive peer pressure is when someone's peers influence them to do something positive or growth building.
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Which factors would a person who is hostile selfish and unreliable score low on according to the five factor model
Someone who is hostile, selfish, and unreliable would score low in two dimensions from the Five Factor Model, which are: agreeableness (for hostility and selfishness), and conscientiousness (for unreliability).
Agreeableness refers to the degree to which someone is willing to acquiesce to another individual – thus making them generally more forgiving and helpful. Low scorers would be more prone to fighting with other people than high scorers, and tends to put themselves first. Conscientiousness refers to the degree to which someone is well-organized and disciplined – the lower the score, the messier and less organized the person.
Which of the following is NOT a condition that must exist for reciprocal altruism to work? A. the behavior must not cost the individual much but be beneficial to the intended recipient B. the individuals involved in the reciprocal altruism must be able to recognize one another C. there is a likelihood that the favor will be returned D. there is a preset amount of individuals involved in the behavior
According to Trivers, reciprocal altruism was kindness that happens between unrelated individuals when an altruistic act will be repaid, and at least claimed to be repaid inside the future Trivers, 1971.
It operates when a few conditions are met: people should interact multiple times so, the possibility to be reimbursed can arise. People need to be able to recognize other people reliably, and individuals must be able to recall the past behavior of those with whom it interacts. For these limits, altruistic behavior is less prevalent than lineage altruism, in which people are engaged for the benefit of more who share their genes.Therefore, the answer is "Option B".
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Final answer:
The correct option is D. There is a preset amount of individuals involved in the behavior. For reciprocal altruism to work, there is no preset number of individuals involved; instead, it requires recognizable interactions with an expectation of returned favors, based on low costs and high benefits.
Explanation:
The condition that is NOT a requirement for reciprocal altruism to work is D. There is a preset amount of individuals involved in the behavior. Reciprocal altruism revolves around behaviors that fit several criteria for successful interaction: the behavior must have a low cost to the individual and high benefit to the recipient, individuals must recognize each other to facilitate future interactions, and there must be an expectation that the favor will be returned. However, there is no preset number of individuals needed for reciprocal altruism to occur; it can happen within varying group sizes and structures.
Many career options in Physical education have national professional organizations that represent their interests, set standards, provide certification (of required), and offer placement services.
True or False?
Answer:
True.
Explanation:
The Physical Education professional aims to promote people's health through the practice of physical activities. Their job is to accompany and guide people during sports or exercise and their audience is quite varied. Physical education graduates can work with school-age children, professional athletes, patients seeking movement recovery, the physically disabled and the elderly in need of specific care.
Many Physical Education career options have national professional organizations that represent your interests, set standards, provide certification (required), and offer placement services.
which of the following can be contracted through contact with saliva?
A. flu
B. Hepatitis A
C. impetigo
D. Staph infection
A. Flu.... because most cough, cold and flu viruses are thought to be passed from person to person by contact with respiratory droplets. Contact can occur by direct bodily contact (such as kissing) or touching something with virus on it (such as shaking hands with someone who has the flu) and then touching your mouth, nose or eyes.
Using the article, briefly explain the differences between man-to-man defense and zone defense.
If you mean basketball then, Zone defense is where you remain in the box and protect the inside more than the outer area. Man to man defense is where you have a particular person and you stay with that person rather of leaving players alone when the balls on the opposite side.
Why is nitrogen in short supply for plant growth?Even so, this form of biologically available nitrogen is often in scarce supply to the inert nature of the N2 gas in the atmosphere from which it is derived.
This is the crucial level of altering small amounts of the approx stable atmospheric pressure (N2) into forms that can enter the biological system.
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Answer:
Man-to-man defense is when a defensive back covers a specific offensive player to prevent that player from scoring. In zone defense, the defensive player covers a zone rather than a specific player.
Explanation:
which type if immunity provides lifetime protection for the body against a specific pathogen?
A. active
B.incomplete
C.complete
D.passive
pleaseee help me :)
Answer:
c
Explanation:
♡ The Question ♡
- Which type if immunity provides lifetime protection for the body against a specific pathogen?
*୨୧ ┈┈┈┈┈┈┈┈┈┈┈┈ ୨୧*
♡ The Answer ♡
- A. Active!
*୨୧ ┈┈┈┈┈┈┈┈┈┈┈┈ ୨୧*
♡ The Explanation/Step-By-Step ♡
- No Explanation/Step-By-Step provided!
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♡ Tips ♡
- No tips provided!
A phlebotomy technician is preparing to perform blood collection for blood cultures, PTT, and testosterone levels. In which of the following orders should the technician collect these samples
which of the following test results are affected when a phlebotomy technician ... which of the following anticoagulants to collect a sample for a PT/PTT test? sodium citrate. when should a phlebotomy technician perform external liquid controls for a ... a phlebotomy technician is collecting blood from a patient for donation. the ...
In phlebotomy, the order of draw for these tests would be first blood cultures, then PTT, and finally testosterone levels to prevent contamination and ensure accurate results.
Explanation:In phlebotomy, the order in which blood samples are collected is critically important to avoid cross-contamination of the samples and ensure accurate test results. The correct order of draw for these particular tests would be first blood cultures, then PTT (Partial Thromboplastin Time), and finally testosterone levels. The blood cultures are typically drawn first to avoid contamination from other additives that could confound the growth of organisms. The PTT test requires sodium citrate additive, which necessitates it to be drawn after the sterile blood cultures. Lastly, the testosterone test is a serum test, which should follow after the additive tubes.
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which statement best describes the purpose of the Codex Almentarius commission
The Codex Alimentarius Commission (CAC) is an intergovernmental body with over 180 members, within the framework of the Joint Food Standards Programme established by the Food and Agriculture Organization of the United Nations (FAO) and the World Health Organization (WHO), with the purpose of protecting the health of consumers and ensuring fair practices in the food trade. The Commission also promotes coordination of all food standards work undertaken by international governmental and non governmental organizations.
The Codex Alimentarius (Latin, meaning Food Law or Code) is the result of the Commission's work: a collection of internationally adopted food standards, guidelines, codes of practice and other recommendations.
Answer:
The Codex Alimentarius Commission develops food safety standards for countries around the world to follow.
Explanation:
What is the purpose of gene therapy? A. to increase livestock production B. to increase crop production C. to cure a disease B. to cause a disease
I believe that it is C "To cure a disease"
Hope this helps!
Answer:
To cure a disease
Explanation:
just had this
What is the primary function of the integumentary system
Hi there! :)
The main function of the integumentary system is to act as a barrier to protect the body from the outside world. Such as protecting the body from invasions by microorganisms, chemicals, and other environmental factors.
There you go! I really hope this helped, if there's anything just let me know! :)
The primary function of the integumentary system, which includes the skin, hair, and nails, is to help maintain homeostasis. It does this by protecting the body, controlling body temperature, synthesizing vitamin D, providing sensory function, and aiding in waste excretion.
Explanation:The integumentary system, which includes the skin and its associated structures like hair and nails, is crucial to maintaining homeostasis in the body. The primary functions of this system include protection, sensing stimuli, thermoregulation, and vitamin D synthesis. The integumentary system, made up of layers of skin, hair, and nails, protects our bodies from potential harmful elements such as infection, injury, dehydration, and even certain environmental factors.
The skin, composed of dead keratinized cells, creates a barrier against microorganisms. Structures like nails protect our fingers and toes from mechanical damage. Additionally, sweat and sebaceous glands in the skin play an important role in maintaining body temperature, excreting small amounts of metabolic waste, and moisturizing the skin. The dilation and constriction of heat-carrying blood vessels in the skin also aid in thermoregulation.
Lastly, the skin plays a significant role in synthesizing vitamin D, which is necessary for a lot of body functions but not easily available in natural foods. It also houses immune cells that patrol the areas to keep them free of foreign materials.
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what are symptoms of an allergic reaction in general
Tingling or itching in the mouth.
Hives, itching or eczema.
Swelling of the lips, face, tongue and throat or other parts of the body.
Wheezing, nasal congestion or trouble breathing.
Abdominal pain, diarrhea, nausea or vomiting.
Dizziness, lightheadedness or fainting.
Partly because of the effects of AIDS on Botswana’s adult population, the majority of the country’s population is __________. A. 30 to 50 years old B. 40 to 60 years old C. under 5 years old D. under 20 years old Please select the best answer from the choices provided. A B C D
Answer:
under 20 years old
Explanation:
was the attempted intubation considered battery